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23 Questions in Prelims 2018 Questions From Our TestSeries

 
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23 Questions in Prelims 2018 Questions From Our TestSeries
by xaam mfe - Friday, 22 June 2018, 7:51 AM
 

2018

1. With reference to the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), consider the following statements :

1. IRNSS has three satellites in geostationary and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits.

2. IRNSS covers entire India and about 5500 sq. km beyond its borders.

3. India will have its own satellite navigation system with full global coverage by the middle of 2019.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) None


Economic Survey +IYB Test 4



The NAVIC system will consist of a constellation of

NAVIC Select one:

a. 3 satellites in Geostationary orbit (GEO)


b. 4 satellites in Geosynchronous orbit (GSO)


c. Both


d. None


Explanation

The NAVIC system will consist of a constellation of 3 satellites in Geostationary orbit (GEO), 4 satellites in Geosynchronous orbit (GSO), approximately 36,000 kilometres (22,000 mi) altitude above earth's surface, and two satellites on the ground as stand-by, in addition to ground stations. The system was developed because access to foreign government-controlled global navigation satellite systems is not guaranteed in hostile situations, as happened to the Indian military in 1999 when it was dependent on the American Global Positioning System (GPS) during the Kargil War.

NAVIC FOR SOUTH ASIAN DIPLOMACY Why in news?  NAVIC (Navigation with Indian Constellation), India’s indigenous global navigation satellite system, is expected to become fully operational from August.  With this, India will join a club of global powers—the US, EU, China and Russia—who control their own navigation satellite systems NAVIC for South Asian Diplomacy Its full operationalization carries implications and opportunities for the South Asian region at large in the following ways:  Sharing the benefits of NAVIC could promote India’s credentials as a collaborative partner in the region. Having a global navigation system bolsters the ability of a nation to serve as a “net security provider”. Net security providers are states that deploy their surplus national assets for the safety and stability of other countries, including by way of responding to natural and man-made disasters.  The USA’s GPS played a significant role in relief efforts post tsunami in 2004 and the Pakistan-India earthquake in 2005, and has delivered significant strategic and economic benefits to the US. NAVIC also arrives as an instrument for environmental and meteorological monitoring, as well as climate research. Thus helping in more accurate prediction and efficient response to disasters like Nepal earthquake 2015.  NAVIC should propel technological innovations and spin-offs that render South Asia progressively less reliant on technological imports from the West and elsewhere. It might even go some way to mend relations with Pakistan. Building on India’s offering of assistance to Pakistan during the floods in Pakistan-occupied Kashmir and other areas in 2014, NAVIC could establish a tradition of regional monitoring whereby India leverages its technological edge to safeguard citizens across the subcontinent. Such gestures could blunt the adversarial nature of Indo-Pakistan relations in the long run. Way forward In dedicating itself to exploring and actualizing the civilian and commercial potential of NAVIC, India can signal to its regional partners that its rise is not only passively peaceful but also directly beneficial to those it can lift up in its tide.






2018

2  With reference to the Genetically Modified mustard (GM mustard) developed in India, consider the following statements :

1. GM mustard has the genes of a soil bacterium that give the plant the property of pest-resistance to a wide variety of pests.

2. GM mustard has the genes that allow the plant cross-pollination and hybridization.

3. GM mustard has been developed jointly by the IARI and Punjab Agricultural University.

 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

 

(a)1 and 3 only

(b)2 only

(c)2 and 3 only

(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer. b


Full Length Test 4

GM crops were in news recently.Consider the following

1.Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) is the apex body for the

approval of commercial cultivation of GM crops.

2. GEAC has given approval for commercial cultivation of GM mustard.

3.GM mustard can survive high amounts of herbicides and hence will not require

weeding

Choose the correct statement/s



Explanation

What is Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC)?

It is established under Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change

It is the apex body for approval of activities involving large scale use of hazardous microorganisms and recom­binants

It is also responsible for ap­proval of proposals relating to release of genetically engineered organisms and products including experimen­tal field trials

 

A team of scientists at Delhi University led by former vice-chancellor Deepak Pental has bred DMH-11, a genetically modified (GM) mustard hybrid. Hybrids are normally obtained by crossing two genetically diverse plants from the same species.The first-generation offspring resulting from it has higher yields than what either of the parents is individually capable of giving But there is no natural hybridisation system in mustard, unlike in, say, cotton, maize or tomato What team has done is, that they have created a viable hybridisation system in mustard using GM technology The resulting GM mustard hybrid, it is claimed, gives 25-30% more yield than the best varieties such as ‘Varuna’ currently grown in the country

Why opposed?

GMOs contaminate forever. GMOs cross pollinate and their seeds can travel far and wide

It is impossible to fully clean up our contaminated gene pool

Genetic engineering allows plants to survive high doses of weed killers, resulting in higher herbicide residues in our food

GMO crops are creating ‘super weeds’ and ‘super bugs,’ which can only be killed with more toxic poisons

2018

4. Consider the following pairs :

Terms sometimes seen in news                  Context /Topic

1. Belle II experiment                           -   Artificial Intelligence

2. Blockchain technology                     - Digital/Cryptocurrency

3. CRISPR — Cas9                               -   Particle Physics

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer. b



Current Affairs Bimonthly Test 4 (1 6th-31 st July)



CRISPR - Cas9 in news recently is a

Select one:

a. name of gene

b. Palindromic DNA stretch

c. Genome editing technique

d. Genetic disease


CRISPR

  • For the first time, scientists in the US have successfully used gene-editing tools on human embryos to correct defective DNA that cause inherited diseases.

  • The effort involved changing the DNA of a large number of one-cell embryos with gene-editing technique CRISPR.

  • CRISPR stands for Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats.

  • CRISPR - Cas9 is a most prominent genome editing technique by targeting specific stretches of genetic code to edit DNA at precise locations.

  • The technique allows researchers to permanently modify genes in living cells and organisms and to correct mutations at precise locations in the human genome to treat genetic causes of disease.

  • It can be used to target multiple genes simultaneously and can also activate gene expression instead of cutting the DNA.


UPSC 2018 Foundation Test Series ► Current Affairs Bimonthly Tests [2017-2018] ►

General ► Current Affairs Bimonthly Test 14 (15th-31st Decem




Blockchain technology was recently in news.It can be used in


1.Distributed data storage - िवतरत डेटा संहण

2.Securing digital Identities - िडिजटल पहचान सुरित करना

3.Digital voting - िडिजटल वोिटंग

2018


Consider the following statements :

1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party.

2. In the Lok Sabha, a "Leader of the Opposition" was recognised for the first time in 1969.

3. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognised as the Leader of the Opposition.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer.b



Reference Books Based Test 8


What is the minimum percentage of the strength of opposition required in a State legislature for the appointment of an opposition leader ?

राज्य विधायिका में एक विपक्षी नेता की नियुक्ति के लिए विपक्ष की ताकत का आवश्यक न्यूनतम प्रतिशत क्या है?

Select one:

a. 20%

b.  25%

c.  40%

d. None


Ans d

  • To become leader of opposition, a political party needs at least 10% strength of the house.



2018

How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)

1. The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been created by an executive order of the Government.

2. The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to improve the quality of air in the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are  correct

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


Vision IAS CA Based Mock Test December 2016


Consider the following regardig National Green Tribunal     


राष्ट्रीय ग्रीन ट्रिब्यूनल के बारे में निम्नलिखित पर विचार करें-


1.The Tribunal is mandated to dispose any appeal finally within six months.


ट्रिब्यूनल के लिये किसी भी अपील को अंततः छह महीने के भीतर निपटाना अनिवार्य है.


2.Tribunals takes decision on the basis of Principles of Natural Justice.


प्राकृतिक न्याय के सिद्धांतों के आधार पर ट्रिब्यूनल्स निर्णय लेते हैं.


Choose the correct statement/s  - सही वक्तव्य चुनें-


Select one:

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. None of the above

Feedback

Your answer is incorrect.

It has been established in 2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010.

It has been established for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection

and conservation of forests and other natural resources.

It also includes enforcement of any legal right relating to environment and giving relief and compensation

for damages to persons and property and for matters connected therewith.

It is a specialized body equipped with the necessary expertise to handle environmental disputes involving

multi-disciplinary issues.

The Tribunal is not bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, and is

guided by principles of natural justice.

The Tribunal is mandated to make and endeavour for disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6

months of filing of the same.

New Delhi is the Principal Place of Sitting of the Tribunal and Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata and Chennai shall be

the other four place of sitting of the Tribunal.

It adjudicates matters relating to following Acts-

Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974

Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974

Environment (Protection) Act, 1986

The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991

Forest Conservation Act

Biological Diversity Act


Vision IAS CA Based Mock Test March 2018



Choose the correct statement/s  - सही कथन चुनें-




1.Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) is a statutory organisation


केन्द्रीय प्रदूषण नियंत्रण बोर्ड (सीपीसीबी) एक वैधानिक संगठन है


2.It derives its power and function from Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.


यह वायु (रोकथाम और प्रदूषण नियंत्रण) अधिनियम, 1981 से अपनी शक्ति और कार्य प्राप्त करता है




Select one:

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. 1 and 2 both

d. None

Feedback

Your answer is incorrect.   

Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)


• It is a statutory organisation which was constituted in 1974 and was


entrusted with the powers and functions under the Air (Prevention


and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.


• Main functions of CPCB is to -


o Promote cleanliness of streams and wells in different areas of


the States by prevention, control and abatement of water


pollution


o to improve the quality of air and to prevent, control or abate air


pollution in the country.


 

 

2018

4 Consider the following statements :

1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.

2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on

it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Reference Books Based Test 2 (Explanations of the question clears the concept regarding laws in 9th Schedule)


39.Which of the following are correctly matched

1.Article 31 A ­ Saves the law made for the implementation of certain Directive Principles

2.Article 31B ­saves the acts and regulations included in the Ninth Schedule

3.Article 31C­ saves the law Providing for Acquisition of Estates

Select one:

a. 1 and 2

b. 2 only

c. 1 and 3

d. 1,2,3




Article 31A16 saves five categories of laws from being challenged and invalidated

on the ground of

contravention of the fundamental rights conferred by Article 14 (equality before law

and equal

protection of laws) and Article 19 (protection of six rights in respect of speech,

assembly, movement,

etc.). They are related to agricultural land reforms, industry and commerce and

include the following:

(a) Acquisition of estates17 and related rights by the State;

(b) Taking over the management of properties by the State;

(c) Amalgamation of corporations;

(d) Extinguishment or modification of rights of directors or shareholders of

corporations; and

(e) Extinguishment or modification of mining leases.

Article 31A does not immunise a state law from judicial review unless it has been

reserved for the

president’s consideration and has received his assent.

Article 31B saves the acts and regulations included in the Ninth Schedule18 from

being challenged

and invalidated on the ground of contravention of any of the fundamental rights.

Thus, the scope of

Article 31B is wider than Article 31A. Article 31B immunises any law included in the

Ninth

Schedule from all the fundamental rights whether or not the law falls under any of

the five categories

specified in Article 31A.

Article 31C, as inserted by the 25th Amendment Act of 1971, contained the

following two provisions:

(a) No law that seeks to implement the socialistic directive principles specified in

Article

39(b)21 or (c)22 shall be void on the ground of contravention of the fundamental

rights

conferred by Article 14 (equality before law and equal protection of laws) or Article

19

(protection of six rights in respect of speech, assembly, movement, etc.)

(b) No law containing a declaration that it is for giving effect to such policy shall be

questioned

in any court on the ground that it does not give effect to such a policy.

In the Kesavananda Bharati case23 (1973), the Supreme Court declared the above

second provision

of Article 31C as unconstitutional and invalid on the ground that judicial review is a

basic feature of

the Constitution and hence, cannot be taken away. However, the above first

provision of Article 31C

was held to be constitutional and valid.


2018

With reference to India's decision to levy an equalization tax of 6% on online advertisement services offered by non-resident entities, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is introduced as a part of the Income Tax Act.

2. Non-resident entities that offer advertisement services in India can claim a tax credit in their home country under the "Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements".

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


Current Affairs Bimonthly Tests 2016-2017 ►

General ► Current Affairs Mock Test 14(16-31st January)




Google tax was in news recently.Consider the following regarding it


1.It is a tax on the income as accrue to a foreign e-commerce company outside of

India.


2.Also known as Equalization Levy,it does not allow tax credit to both foreign and

domestic firms

Choose the correct statement/s

Select one:

a. Only 1

b. Only 2

c. Both 1 and 2

d. None


2018

Consider the following statements

1. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report has recommended a debt to GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) government by 2023, comprising 40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Governments.

2. The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 21% of GDP as compared to that of war of GDP of the State 2 Governments.

3. As per the Constitution of India, it is mandatory for a State to take the Central Government’s consent for raising any loan if the former owes any outstanding liabilities to the latter.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3




Vision IAS CA Based Mock Test February 2018




14.NK Singh (FRBM Review)Committee recommended

1. The combined debt-to-GDP ratio of the centre and states should be brought down

to 60% by 2023.

2.the centre should reduce its fiscal deficit from the current 3.5% (2017) to 0% by

2023.

Choose the correct statement/s

Select one:

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. 1 and 2 both

d. None

 

2018

"Rule of Law Index" is released by which of the following ?

(a) Amnesty International

(b) International Court of Justice

(c) The Office of UN Commissioner for Human Rights

(d) World Justice Project

Answer.d


Vision IAS CA Based Mock Test February 2018




Rule of Law Index 2018 has recently been published by

Select one:

a. UN

b. OECD

c. Britain

d. World Justice Project




2018

The terms ‘Wanna Cry, Petya and Eternal Blue' sometimes mentioned in the news recently are related to

(a) Exo-planets

(b) Crypto-currency

(c) Cyber attacks

(d) Mini satellites

Answer.c




Current Affairs Bimonthly Test 2 (16th- 30th June)


2.NotPetya' was in news recently.Which of he following is/are correct

Select one:

a. a ransom ware that destroys the filesystem in the computer

b. The malware that masquerades as the Petya ransomware.

c. The country's one of the largest ports JNPT has been hit by this ransomware.

d. All of the above

Your answer is incorrect.

If the WannaCry attacks were a signal of things to come, then the NotPetya

ransomware, which hit machines globally on Tuesday is the sequel that most cyber

experts were anticipating. According to experts, NotPetya cleverly uses legitimate

Windows processes PsExec and Windows Management Information Command-line

(WMIC), which is an interface that simplifies the use of Windows Management

Instrumentation (WMI).

But simply put, it is no different from WannaCry, and the end motive for the hackers is

to earn ransom money (in bitcoin). So, what else do we know about NotPetya? Who

has been hit by the ransomware attack, and how can they minimise the damage?

Here’s all you need to know.

1. How Bad is NotPetya?

NotPetya is known to use both the NSA's exploit tool EternalBlue and the PsExec as

infection vectors and is detected as RANSOM_PETYA.SMA.

As noted by cyber security experts, NotPetya reboots the PC, presenting a faked

‘check disk’ screen, and showing the ransom message. The reboot and subsequent

messages are typical of previously observed ransomware Petya behaviour. (Yes, it’s

easy to confuse between the two ransomware programs.)

It has affected countries like Ukraine, Spain and is gradually spreading to countries

like India too, where brands like Mondelez, Genesis and one of the country’s largest

ports, JNPT, have reportedly been hit.

According to Kaspersky, the attack is said to have started when a software called

MeDoc was updated by government organisations in Ukraine. Which is why Ukraine

has been hit the worst with over 60 percent of PCs affected, followed by Russia with

30 percent affected Windows PCs.


2018

Which of the following led to the introduction of English Education in India ?

1. Charter Act of 1813

2. General Committee of Public Instruction, 1823

3. Orientalist and Anglicist Controversy

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer.a


UPSC 2018 Foundation Test Series ► Reference Books Based Tests ► General ►

Reference Books Based Test 10


Reference Books Based Test 10


Which of the following is/are characteristic(s) of the debate between

"Anglicists" and "Orientalists" in the 1830s

1. The Anglicists wanted to cut the money being spent on printing Sanskrit

and Arabic texts

2. The Anglicists wanted to cut the money spent on printing Sanskrit texts

and wished to

continue to print in Persian

3. The Orientalists wanted stipend for the students of Arabic and Sanskrit

4. The Orientalists started a new Sanskrit College in Delhi

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Select one:

a. 1 only

b. 1 3, and 4

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 2 , 3 and 4

ORIENTALIST-ANGLIC1ST CONTROVERSY Within the General Committee on Public

Instruction, the Anglicists argued that the government spending on

education should be exclusively for modern studies.

The. Orientalists said while western sciences and literature should be

taught to prepare students to take up jobs, emphasis should be placed on

expansion of traditional Indian learning.

Even the Anglicists were divided over the question of medium of

instruction—one faction was for English language as the medium, while

the other faction was for Indian languages (vernaculars) for the

purpose.

Unfortunately there was a great deal of confusion over English and

vernacular languages as media of instruction and as objects of study

The correct answer is:

1 and 3 only


q.38The foundation of modern educational system in India was laid by

. भारत में आधुनिक शिक्षा प्रणाली की नींव रखी गई थी-


Select one:

a. the Charter Act of 1813  - 1813 के चार्टर अधिनियम द्वारा...

b. Macaulay’s Minutes of 1835  - मैकॉले के 1835 के मिनट द्वारा...

c. The Hunter Commission of 1882  - 1882 के हंटर कमिशन द्वारा...

d. Wood’s Dispatch of 1854  - वुड के 1854 के डिस्पैच द्वारा...

Feedback

Lord Macaulay's Minute (1835), This famous minute settled the row in favour of Anglicists—the limited government resources were to be devoted to teaching of western sciences and literature through the medium of English language alone. Lord Macaulay held the view that "Indian learning was inferior to European learning"—which was true as far as physical and social sciences in the contemporary stage were concerned.The Government soon made English as the medium of instruction in its schools and colleges and opened a few English schools and colleges instead of a large number of elementary schools, thus neglecting mass education. The British planned to educate a small section of upper and middle classes, thus creating a class"Indian in blood and colour but English in tastes, in opinions, in morals and in intellect" who would act as interpreters between the Government and masses and would enrich the vernaculars by which knowledge of western sciences and literature would reach the masses.This was called the 'downward filtration theory'.


2018


Consider the following statements:

1. The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory.

2. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar.

3. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 3 only

(d) 1 and 3



Full Mock test 1


Question 14


Barren Island was in news recently.It is located in


बारेन द्वीप हाल ही में खबर में था. यह.......... में स्थित है-




Select one:

a. Laksdweep  - लक्षद्वीप

b. Andman and Nicobar  - अंडमान और निकोबार

c. Maldives  - मालदीव

d. Indonesia  - इंडोनेशिया


ANS B

According to scientists from Goa based National Institute of Oceanography (NIO), India’s only live volcano at Barren Island in the Andaman and Nicobar has become active again.


After lying dormant for 150 years, Barren Island volcano had erupted in 1991 and since then it is showing sporadic activity. Now it is erupting in small episodes of five to 10 minutes.


Key Facts


According to scientists, the active Barren island volcano is spewing smoke, ash and lava once again.


It is claimed that volcanoes is erupting the rising magma formed deep in the mantle due to the melting of the subducted Indian Ocean crust.


Scientists have sampled sediments and water and also have recovered coal-like black pyroclastic material of volcanic ejecta. These samples will help in deciphering nature of present and past volcanic activity in region.


The volcanic island is part of Andaman islands. Its northern part is barren and is uninhabited. It is also devoid of vegetation.


The correct answer is: Andman and Nicobar  - अंडमान और निकोबार



2018


11.With reference to educational institutes during colonial rule in India, consider the following pairs :

 

           Institution                          Founder

 

1. Sanskrit College at Benaras -   William Jones

2. Calcutta Madarsa -             Warren Hastings

3. Fort William College -          Arthur Wellesley

 

Which of the pairs given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 3 only



NCERT Based Test 4

Which of the following are correctly matched


1.Calcutta Madrasa - Warren Hastings


2. Benaras Sanskrit College - Jonathan Duncan


3.Asiatic Society -  Henry Thomas Colebrooke




इनमें से कौन सा सही ढंग से मिलान किया गया है-




1. कलकत्ता मदरसा --------------वॉरेन हेस्टिंग्स


2. बनारस संस्कृत कॉलेज --------जोनाथन डंकन


3. एशियन सोसायटी -------------हेनरी थॉमस कोलब्रुक




एक चुनो:




Select one:

a. 1 only

b. 1 and 2

c. 2 and 3

d. 1,2,3

Feedback

Your answer is incorrect.

For establishing their rule in India, the officers of the East India Company thought it necessary to preserve the knowledge of Hindus and Muslims. In the year 1750 they passed a resolution for that purpose. To preserve Urdu, they established a madrasa at Calcutta, whereas for protection and development of Sanskrit, they chose Benares. In 1791, during the period of British rule in India, Jonathan Duncan, the representative of the East India Company proposed the establishment of a Sanskrit college for development and preservation of the Sanskrit vangmaya [Sanskrit, "literature"] and to show that the English people were in favour of the development of the Indian culture. This was sanctioned by Governor General Lord Cornwallis. Kashi Naresh Mahip Narayan Singh donated a huge tract of land in the southern part of Benares for construction of the college. The first teacher of this Institution was Pandit Kashinath. The Governor General initially sanctioned a budget of Rs. 20,000 per annum.


Note: always supplement your knowledge with some internet research when something is mentioned in the NCERT but detail is not provided.



Reference Books Based Test 10


Which of the following are correctly matched

1.Calcutta Madrasah -Warren Hastings

2.The Sanskrit College - Jonathan Duncan,

3.Fort William College- Wellesley

Select one:

a. 1 only

b. 1 and 2

c. 2 and 3

d. 1,2,3

 

2018

 

Consider the following pairs :

Regions sometimes mentioned in news   Country

1. Catalonia         -                             Spain

2. Crimea       -                                 Hungary

3. Mindanao -                                 Philippines

4. Oromia        -                                Nigeria

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched ?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b)) 3 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 4 only

Answer.c


Vision IAS CA Based Mock Test October 2017



1.Catalonia is in

Select one:

a. France

b. Spain

c. Portugal

d. None , Its an Autonomous region

 

2018

Regarding Wood's Dispatch, which of the following statements are true ?

1. Grants-in-Aid system was introduced.

2. Establishment of universities was recommended.

3. English as a medium of instruction at all levels of education was recommended.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer. a


NCERT based Test 4

Consider the following


1. English Education Act of 1835 was introduced On the recommendation of T.B Macaulay


2.  Wood's dispatch recommended the introduction of system of European learning.




Choose the correct statement/s


निम्नलिखित को ध्यान से देखें-




1. टी.बी. मैकाले की सिफारिश पर 1835 का अंग्रेजी शिक्षा अधिनियम शुरू किया गया था




2. वुड के प्रेषण ने यूरोपीय शिक्षण की प्रणाली की शुरूआत करने की सिफारिश की


सही वक्तव्य चुनें-




Select one:

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. 1 and 2 both

d. None of the above

Feedback

Your answer is incorrect.

Macaulay emphasised the need to teach the English language. He felt that knowledge


of English would allow Indians to read some of the finest literature the world had produced;


it would make them aware of the developments in Western science and philosophy. Teaching of English could thus be a way of civilising people, changing their tastes, values and culture. Following Macaulay’s minute, the English Education Act of 1835 was introduced






In 1854, the Court of Directors of the East India Company in London sent an educational despatch to the Governor-General in India. Issued by Charles Wood,the President of the Board of Control of the Company, it has come to be known as Wood’s Despatch. Outlining the educational policy that was to be followed in India,it emphasised once again the practical benefits of a system of European learning, as opposed to Oriental knowledge.It recommended English as a medium of instruction for higher studies and vernacular at school level.





2018

With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and reports to the Ilouse whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc. conrerred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation ?

(a) Committee on Government Assurances

(b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation

(c) Rules Committee

(d) Business Advisory Committee

Answer.b

FULL MOCK TEST 1

Q1.Consider the following   - निम्नलिखित को ध्यान से पढ़ें-

 

1.Committee on Subordinate Legislation works on the detailed framework of legislation.

अधीनस्थ विधान पर समिति कानून की विस्तृत रूपरेखा पर काम करती है

2.Committee on Petitions examines petitions on bills and on matters of general public importance.  

याचिकाओं पर समिति बिलों और सामान्य सार्वजनिक महत्व के मामलों पर याचिकाओं की जांच करती है

 

Choose the correct statement/s  - सही वक्तव्य चुनें-

Explanation.

Committee on Subordinate Legislation This committee examines and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules,sub-rules and bye-laws delegated by the Parliament or conferred by the Constitution to the Executive are being properly exercised by it. In both the Houses, the committee consists of 15 members. It was constituted in 1953  .

2018

77. Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement?

(a) Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution

(b) Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV

(c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part. III

(d) Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th Amendment to the Constitution

Answer.c

UPSC 2018 Foundation Test Series ►VisionIAS Monthly Current Affair Based Mock Tests ► General ►Vision IAS CA Based Mock Test August 2017

Right to Privacy is a  - गोपनीयता का अधिकार एक............................. हैः

Select one:

a. Fundamental right  - मौलिक अधिकार

b. legal right  - कानूनी अधिकार

c. constitutional right  - संवैधानिक अधिकार

d. None of the above  - इनमें से कोई भी नहीं

Feedback

Recently, in Justice K. S. Puttaswamy (retd.) vs Unionof India, a nine-judge Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court ruled that right to privacy is anintrinsic part of life and liberty under Article 21. The correct answer is: Fundamental right  - मौलिक अधिकार


2018

80. With reference to India’s satellite launch  vehicles, consider the following statements:

1. PSLVs launch the satellites useful for  Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites.

2. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth.

3. GSLV Mk III is a four-staged launch l vehicle with the first and third stages l using solid rocket motors; and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct.?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 2

(d) 3 only

Answer.a


► UPSC 2018 Foundation Test Series ► Current Affairs Bimonthly Tests 2016-2017

General ► Current Affair Mock Test 6


Which of the following is correct regarding GSLV-MkIII

1. It will help India putting satellites of the class of 6,000 to 15,000 kilos  with some variations, to geostationary transfer orbits at 36,000 km

2. It will use a semi-cryogenic engine

3. The engine will use space-grade kerosene as fuel and liquid oxygen as oxidizer

निम्न में से कौन जी.एस.एल.वी.-एम.के.3 के बारे में सही है--



1 यह मदद करेगा भारत की, कुछ बदलाव के साथ, 6,000 से 15,000 किलो के वर्ग के उपग्रहों को, 36,000 किमी पर भूस्थिर हस्तांतरण कक्षाओं में स्थापित करने के लिए


2. यह एक सेमी-क्रायोजेनिक इंजन का उपयोग करेगा


3. यह इंजन स्पेस-ग्रेड केरोसिन का उपयोग बतौर ईंधन करेगा और तरल ऑक्सीजन का उपयोग ऑक्सीकारक के रूप में करेगा

----------------------------



एक चुनो:



Select one:

a. 1

b. 1 2

c. 1 2 3

d. None

Ans c

Explanation

Mega launchers for ISRO soon


Apart from powering rockets to lift heavier satellites, it will also lower the cost per kilo.

An advanced Indian mega space launcher that can deliver ten-tonne and heavier communication satellites to space and using a semi-cryogenic engine is likely to to power ISRO’s launchers by around 2018.

That is the space agency’s next big space vehicle, having just achieved the GSLV for lifting 2,000-kg payloads. The agency is gearing up for first test flight of the GSLV Mark-III vehicle in December with a 4,000-kg payload.

Currently, the government has approved the development of the semi-cryogenic stage alone.

When fitted suitably into a launch vehicle, it will see India putting satellites of the class of 6,000 to 10,000 kilos — or with some variations, lift even 15,000-kg payloads — to geostationary transfer orbits at 36,000 km. The engine is expected to triple or quadruple ISRO's transportation ability.

Massive payloads

Pre-project work on what is called the SCE-200 began about four years back. "We plan to have an [semi-cryogenic] engine and stage capable of flight by the end of 2018 and try it on the GSLV-MkIII.

This would readily boost Mk-III's maximum lifting capability from 4,000 kg to 6,000 kg,” Dr K. Sivan, Director of Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre at Thiruvanthapuram, the lead centre for launch vehicle development, said.

Two years thereafter, around 2020, this will be enhanced to 15,000 kg by putting strap-ons in clusters — the stage where major European and U.S. launch providers already are.

The engine will use space-grade kerosene as fuel and liquid oxygen as oxidiser. The development is going on at the Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre and the ISRO Propulsion Complex at Mahendragiri in Tamil Nadu.

“The semi-cryogenic engine is getting fabricated. Testing of its pump and components has been going on. An engine testing facility is also getting set up at Mahendragiri,” Dr. Sivan said.

Apart from powering rockets to lift heavier satellites, it will also effectively lower the cost per kilogram to reach orbits, which is the goal of all space-faring nations, he said.

Liquid fuel

The high-power local capability is needed as Indian communication satellites move towards 5,000-plus kg and more from 2017. By then, ISRO plans to build and launch its heaviest 5,700-kg GSAT-11 spacecraft, although on a European Ariane rocket for a big fee. Its present rockets can lift only up to 2,000 kg to this orbit.

Dr. Sivan said, “The GSLV-MkIII that we plan to test in December has a core liquid fuel stage. When the semi-cryogenic engine gets ready, our plan is to replace the liquid stage with the SCE. We straightaway get six-tonne payload capability, two tonnes over what Mark III can give.”

Subsequently the plan is to have a modular vehicle (earlier called the unifield launch vehicle) which allows variations suited to different payloads; this being done with the PSLV with its three versions.

For example, Dr. Sivan said: “We can have a bigger semicryogenic stage with clustered engines, similar to what SpawceX did using nine Merlin engines. We can then get a payload of 15 tonnes in the GTO.”





2018

Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct?

(a ) A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions relating to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.

(b) A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India.

(c) A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India.

(d) A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of India.

Answer.c






UPSC 2018 Foundation Test Series ► Full Length Mocks Test 2018 ► General ► Test 2


A Bill is deemed to be a 'Money Bill' if it has any provisions dealing with

अगर इसमें किसी भी............... से निपटने के लिए कोई प्रावधान है, तो एक विधेयक को 'मनी बिल' समझा जाता है-


1. imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax

किसी भी टैक्स को लागू, उन्मूलन, छूट, परिवर्तन या विनियमित करने

2. appropriation of money from the Consolidated Fund of India  - भारत की समेकित निधि से धन का विनियोग

3. imposition of fines or other pecuniary penalties  - जुर्माना या अन्य वित्तीय दंड

4. payment of fee for licences or fee for service rendered

प्रदान की गई सेवाओं के लिए शुल्क का भुगतान या लाइसेंस के लिए शुल्क का भुगतान


Select the correct answer using the code given below.  - नीचे दिए गए कोड से सही उत्तर का चयन करें-


Select one:

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 1, 3 and 4

c. 1, 2 and 3

d. 2 only


2018


Consider the following countries :

1. Australia

2. Canada

3. China

4. India

5. Japan

6. USA

Which of the above are among the 'free-trade partners' of ASEAN ?

(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5

(b) 3, 4, 5 and 6

(c) 1, 3, 4 and 5

(d) 2, 3, 4 and 6

Answer.c


UPSC 2018 Foundation Test Series ► Current Affairs Bimonthly Tests 2016-2017 ►

General ► Current Affair Mock Test 9 [ November 1-15 ]




Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) is a proposed free trade agreement (FTA) between

1. India

2. China

3. ASEAN Countries

4. Australia

5.Japan

6. South Korea

7. New Zealand

क्षेत्रीय व्यापक आर्थिक भागीदारी (आरसीईपी) एक प्रस्तावित मुक्त व्यापार समझौता (एफटीए) है, इन के बीचः

1. भारत
2. चीन
3. आसियान देश
4. ऑस्ट्रेलिया
5. जापान
6. दक्षिण कोरिया
7. न्यूजीलैंड

एक चुनो:


Select one:

a. 1 2 3

b. 1 2 3 6

c. 2 3

d. 1 2 3 4 5 6

Feedback

Your answer is incorrect.

Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) is a proposed free trade agreement (FTA) between the ten member states of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) (Brunei, Burma (Myanmar), Cambodia, Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia, the Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, Vietnam) and the six states with which ASEAN has existing FTAs (Australia, China, India, Japan, South Korea and New Zealand).

http://www.thehindu.com/business/rcep-members-worried-about-giving-more/article9291663.ece

RCEP is the proposed mega-regional Free Trade Agreement (FTA) between 16 Asia-Pacific countries including India, China, Japan, South Korea, Australia, New Zealand and the 10-member ASEAN bloc.

The concerns of 15 Asia-Pacific nations including India, over agreeing to give greater market access to Chinese goods without gaining similarly in return, are likely to take centre-stage in the forthcoming ministerial meeting on the Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP).



2018


In the federation established by The Government on India Act of 1935. Residuary Power were given to the

(a) Federal Legislature

(b) Governor General

(c) Provincial Legislature

(d) Provincial Governors

Answer.b






UPSC 2018 Foundation Test Series ► Reference Books Based Tests ► General ►

Reference Books Based Tests 3

Consider the following   - निम्नलिखित को ध्यान से पढ़ें-


1.The present Constitution follows the scheme of 1935 act that provided for a three-fold enumeration, viz., federal, provincial and concurrent.

वर्तमान संविधान 1935 अधिनियम की एक योजना का पालन करता है जो कि एक त्रिस्तरीय emumenration के लिए प्रदान करता था, जैसे, संघीय, प्रांतीय और समवर्ती

2.The Government of India (GoI) Act of 1935 vested residuary power to the federal legislature .

भारत सरकार 1935 अधिनियम ने संघीय विधान मंडल में अवशेष शक्ति निहित की


Choose the correct statement  - एक चुनो:

Select one:

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. 1 and 2 both

d. None

Ans 1 only

Explanation

The Government of India (GoI) Act of 1935 provided for a three-fold enumeration, viz., federal,provincial and concurrent. The present Constitution follows the scheme of this act but with one difference, that is, under this act, the residuary powers were given neither to the federal legislature nor to the provincial legislature but to the governor-general of India. In this respect, India follows the Canadian precedent


2018

96. Consider the following statements:

1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office.

2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer.c

 

 

 

 

UPSC 2018 Foundation Test Series ► Full Length Mocks Test 2018 ► Test 5

 

 

JaZFd6fvJTadtgpXnMlJjdqw75xxrwa38ngFlW0l

The President of India and the Governor of States enjoy the following immunities (Article 361):

(i) The President or the Governor is not answerable to any court for the exercise and

performance of the powers and duties of his office.

(ii) No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the President or the

Governor in any court during his term of office.

(iii) No process for the arrest or imprisonment of the President or the Governor shall be

issued from any court during his term of office.

(iv) No civil proceedings against the President or the Governor shall be instituted during his

term of office in any court in respect of any act done by him in his personal capacity,

whether before or after he entered upon his office, until the expiration of two months next

after notice has been delivered to him.

2018

98. What is "Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD)", sometimes seen in the news?

(a) An Israeli radar system

(b) India's indigenous anti-missile programme

(c) An American anti missile system

(d) A defence collaboration between Japan and South Korea





UPSC 2018 Foundation Test Series ► Current Affairs Bimonthly Tests 2016-2017 ►Current Affairs Mock Test 20 (16 - 30th April )




-zGy2X34ehFZ0RQb2fILkKdRrqBX9GNJs-1y8Bdo

THAAD

 

Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD) is an anti-ballistic missile defense system developed by US.

It is designed to shoot down short, medium and intermediate range ballistic missiles in their terminal phase.

The missile carries no warhead, but relies on the kinetic energy to destroy the incoming missile.

A kinetic energy hit minimizes the risk of exploding conventional warhead ballistic missiles and nuclear tipped ballistic missiles will not detonate upon a kinetic energy hit.

U.S and South Korea agreed last year to deploy the THAAD to counter the threat of missile launches by North Korea.


100

Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the "Rule of Law" ?

1. Limitation of powers

2. Equality before law

3. People's responsibility to the Government

4. Liberty and civil rights

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer.c

UPSC 201 8 Foundation Test Series ► Reference Books Based Tests ►

Reference Books Based Test 2 Q 50




Which of the following constitutes ‘Rule of Law’ in India

इनम से कौन सा भारत म 'कानून का िनयम' का गठन करता है

1 .Equality before law ­ कानून से पहले समता

2.Absence of special privileges ­ िवशेष िवशेषािधकारों का अभाव

3.Absence of discrimination ­ भेदभाव का अभाव

4.Absence of arbitrary power ­ मनमानी श का अभाव

5. Primacy of the Constitution ­ संिवधान की ाथिमकता

Select one:

a. 1 ,3,4

b. 1 ,2,3,4

c. 1 ,2,3,4,5

d. 1 ,2,3

Your answer is incorrect.

Rule of Law The concept of ‘equality before law’ is an element of the concept of

‘Rule of Law’,

propounded by A.V. Dicey, the British jurist. His concept has the following three

elements or

aspects:

(i) Absence of arbitrary power, that is, no man can be punished except for a breach

of law.

(ii) Equality before the law, that is, equal subjection of all citizens (rich or poor, high

or low,

official or non­official) to the ordinary law of the land administered by the ordinary

law

courts3.

(iii) The primacy of the rights of the individual, that is, the constitution is the result of

the rights of

the individual as defined and enforced by the courts of law rather than the

constitution being

the source of the individual rights.

The first and the second elements are applicable to the Indian System and not the

third one. In the

Indian System, the constitution is the source of the individual rights.

The Supreme Court held that the ‘Rule of Law’ as embodied in Article 1 4 is a ‘basic

feature’ of the

constitution. Hence, it cannot be destroyed even by an amendment

The correct answer is: 1 ,2,3,4,5